Thursday, July 5, 2018

George V. Smith on Granville Sharp's Rule (Titus 2:13)

George Vance Smith on Sharp's Rule, from The Bible and Its Theology as Popularly Taught: A Review, Comparison, and Re-Statement by G.Vance Smith, B.A. Philos. & Theol. Doct. 1892

In the Epistles there are two passages which have been considered of great importance, as direct testimonies for the deity of Christ. They have not been noticed in the body of this work, chiefly from the desire not to burden the text with too many of such details; but a few brief remarks may be introduced here. The passages referred to are Titus ii. 13 and 1 John v. 20, to which may be added 2 Pet. i. 1 (R. V.)

Titus ii. 13.—In the Authorized Version this runs as follows: "Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ." Dean Alford (N. T. revised) varies thus: ". . .. hope and the manifestation of the glory of the great God and of our Saviour Jesus Christ." Thus, many others, as Winer, Bunsen and De Wette, distinguishing between "the great God" and Jesus Christ.

Dr. Liddon, however, as might be expected, renders thus: "Looking for the blessed hope and appearing of the glory of our great God and Saviour Jesus Christ," exactly following the translation of Bishop Ellicott (Past. Ep. p. 259). R.V. also reads, "our great God and Saviour, Jesus Christ."

The R.V. rendering of 2 Pet. i. 1 is similar: "the righteousness of our God and Saviour Jesus Christ." In both these cases the margin fairly gives notice that the old translation may be correct; and in both eases the American Revision Committee recommend that the new text and its margin should change places. Thus it is clear that the old translation carries as much authority as the new one; and the question may be asked, Why then did the English revisers alter it—and that too in opposition to their own good rule, to make as few alterations as possible? The following statement applies to both these texts.

It is acknowledged by the highest authorities that there is nothing in the grammatical form of either passage to determine its translation the one way or the other. It may be correctly represented by both renderings. In the presence of this doubt, the ordinary reader may be well satisfied to follow the guidance of such scholars as Meyer and Winer, who (in Titus ii. 13) are agreed in telling us that two subjects of thought are here designated, and that Jesus Christ accordingly is not described as "the great God." The judgment of these scholars is the more valuable because their conclusion has been dictated, they tell us, simply by a due regard to the usual tenor of St. Paul's language, in reference to God and to Christ. Winer enforces his view of Tit. ii. 13, by the following note: "In the above remarks I had no intention to deny that, in point of grammar, SWTHROS HMWN [Saviour of us, i.e. our Saviour] may be regarded as a second predicate, jointly depending on the article TOU; but the dogmatic conviction derived from Paul's writings, that this Apostle cannot have called Christ the great God, induced me to shew that there is no grammatical obstacle to our taking the clause KAI SWT....CRISTOU by itself, as referring to a second subject." To this note the English translator of Winer appends these words:—"This passage is very carefully examined by Bishop Ellicott and Dean Alford in loc; and though these writers come to different conclusions (the latter agreeing with Winer, the former rendering the words, 'of our great God and Saviour Jesus Christ'), they are entirely agreed as to the admissibility of both renderings in point of grammar." (Winer, Gram. N. T., ed. by Moulton, p. 162.)

Probably nothing more is needed to enable the English reader to see that the rendering of the Authorized is amply justified and could only have been changed under some unavowed dogmatic influence. The point in question may be easily illustrated. Thus: the words hO FILIPPOS KAI ALEXANDOS do not convey or imply that Philip and Alexander are one and the same person, because they were known to have been two; so neither does hO QEOS HMWN KAI KURIOS necessarily imply that God and Christ are one and the same, inasmuch as they also were equally known to be two, and are everywhere recognized and spoken of as two.

To the correctness of the resulting position there is a remarkable testimony under the hand and seal of the revisers themselves! In 2 Thess. i. 12, we have exactly the same form of expression as in 2 Pet. i. 1. The words and their order are all the same, except only that KURIOS, Lord, takes the place of SWTHR, Saviour. Thus:—(a) 2 Pet. i. 1: literally, "the God of us and Saviour Jesus Christ;" (b) 2 Thess. i. 12: literally, "the God of us and Lord Jesus Christ." In (a) the R.V. rendering is "our God and Saviour Jesus Christ;" in (b) it is "our God and the Lord Jesus Christ." To which of these inconsistent translations of the same form of words will the revisers adhere as correct?

Bishop Ellicott has the following remark—quite in harmony with the above interpretation: "It must be candidly avowed that it is very doubtful whether on the grammatical principle last alluded to [the union of two substantives under the vinculum of a common article] the interpretation of this passage can be fully settled." The Bishop goes on to give in detail the reasons which have determined him to render as he has done, and concludes his comment in these words: "It ought not to be suppressed that some of the best versions, Vulgate, Syriac, Coptic, Armenian (not, however, Ethiopic), and some Fathers of unquestioned orthodoxy, adopted the other interpretation the true rendering of the clause really turns more upon exegesis than upon grammar, and this the student should not fail clearly to bear in mind. (Pastoral Epistles, p. 201.) This last remark is one to which every fair-minded reader will assent; but he will remember that exegesis, here as elsewhere, ought to be illustrated and confirmed by the usual strain of the N.T. writings, and should not be in opposition to it.

The same excellent authority, although on exegetical grounds defending the new rendering, has yet expressly guarded himself against too servile a deference to the rule of the article above referred to. His words are clear and to the point:—"Lastly, several examples of what is called Granville Sharp's rule, or the inference from the presence of the article before only the first of two substantives connected by KAI, that they both refer to the same person or class, must be deemed very doubtful. The rule is sound in principle, but in the case of proper names or quasi-proper names, cannot safely be pressed."—Aids to Faith (4th ed.), p. 462

[Comp. the well known words of Bishop Pearson: "We must not think to decide this controversy by the articles, of which the sacred penmen were not curious, and the transcribers have been very careless." —On the Creed (ed. 1842), p. 229, note.]

Romans 8:1 and the Missing "Now" in the New World Translation


The website http://www.jwinfoline.com/Documents/New_World_Translation/Is_the_nwt_reliable.htm has:
"In Romans 8:1 where the original says "There is therefore now no condemnation to those who are in Christ Jesus..." the Society has deleted the word "now". This omission is necessary to support the belief that there is no assurance of salvation right now for any Jehovah's Witness."
One author, Robert Bowman, has:
"The NWT also omits key words on occasion, when retaining them in the text would seem to contradict JW doctrine. The most glaring example is Romans 8:1, "Therefore those in union with Christ Jesus have no condemnation," which omits the word "now." This omission is evidently motivated by the fact that JWs do not believe anyone can claim to be free of condemnation now."
[The New World Translation On Trial Part Two in a Four-part Series on JWs and the Bible from the Christian Research Journal, Fall, 1989, page 28. The Editor-in-Chief of the Christian Research Journal is Elliot Miller.]
Reply: Does the original though, according to the first accusation, really say, "There is therefore now no condemnation to those who are in Christ Jesus..."?
In Brown & Comfort's Interlinear, once you remove the words added in the brackets for clarification, reads, when utilizing their numbering system, as follows:
"NOW THEN NO CONDEMNATION TO THE ONES IN CHRIST JESUS." [UBS4 Greek Text]
The accompanying translation (NRSV) reads,
"There is therefore now no condemnation for those who are in Christ Jesus."
The accuser above has confused a newer english translation, the New Revised Standard Version 1989 for the original Greek.
When it comes to translating the Greek word in question, NUN, the NWT is actually closer to the Greek. The NWT uses just ONE word to translate NUN, while the NRSV needs FOUR english words to translate this one Greek word, and yet, only the NWT is singled out as tampering with the text.
The NWT has not DELETED the word "now," it was simply translated as "therefore."

Another way to translate NUN would be to render it as "So" or "Thus."
Consider:
(God's Word Bible) So those who are believers in Christ Jesus can no longer be condemned. (New Jerusalem Bible) Thus, condemnation will never come to those who are in Christ Jesus,
(New Living Translation) So now there is no condemnation for those
who belong to Christ Jesus.
(Bible in Basic English) For this cause those who are in Christ Jesus will not be judged as sinners.
(Jerusalem Bible) "The reason, therefore, why those who are in Christ Jesus are not condemned."
(C.B. Williams) So then there is no condemnation at all for those who are in union with Christ Jesus.
(Heinz Cassirer's New Covenant) Well then, no sentence of condemnation stands against those who are in union with Christ Jesus."
(Faithful NT) [There is] therefore no condemnation to those in Christ Jesus.
(New English Bible) The conclusion of the matter is this: there is no condemnation for those who are united with Christ."
(21st Century NT) So then there can be no condemnation of those who are united with Christ Jesus.
(Murdoch) There is therefore no condemnation, to them who, in Jesus Messiah, walk not after the flesh.
(Goodspeed) So there is no condemnation any more for those who are in union with Christ Jesus.
(Jewish NT) Therefore, there is no longer any condemnation awaiting those who are in union with the Messiah Yeshua.
(Unvarnished NT) Now then, no condemnation awaits those in union Christ Jesus.
(C.K. Williams) There is now, therefore, no sentence of 'Guilty' for those that are in Christ Jesus.
(J.W.C. Wand) For those who are in Christ there is no condemnation.
(Lattimore) Thus there is no condemnation for those who are in Christ Jesus.
According to the BAGD, NUN, can act to describe something, "as far as the present situation is compared" or as "for now I tell you this."
We see this elsewhere, as at Acts 4:29; 20:32; 27:22.
The BAG 1957 edition, translates the occurence of NUN at Romans 8:1 as "'so' or 'thus now'"
Consider also the different words that Abbott-Smith's Lexicon allows for NUN: "Now, presently...presently, forthwith, ...now, therefore, now, however, as it is..."
Can we now rightly accuse the above translators of being motivated by the fact that they also do not believe anyone can claim to be free of condemnation now? Or is that the above accusers simply are ignorant of the issues involved?

Other examples are as follows:
"But as it is, you are seeking to kill Me, a man who has told you the truth, which I heard from God; this Abraham did not do." John 8:40 NASB, NJB, NIV ("in fact" Weymouth)
"As it is, My kingdom does not have its origin here." John 18:36 HCSB, NWT, NASB, NJB, NRSV ("as a matter of fact" Weymouth)
"Therefore remain in him now, children, so that when he appears we may be fearless, and not shrink from him in shame at his coming." 1 John 2:28 New Jerusalem Bible
"And so I ask you, dear Lady: let us all love one another. This is no new command I am writing you; it is the command which we have had from the beginning." 2 John 5 TEV
"Otherwise, your children would be unclean, but as it is, they are holy." 1 Cor. 7:14 NRSV, RSV, ESV, TEV, NIV "in fact" NJB; "in reality" Weymouth.
"But as it is, God arranged the members in the body, each one of them, as he chose." 1 Cor. 12:18 NRSV, RSV, ESV, TEV, NJB, ("in fact" NIV; "as a matter of fact" Weymouth)
"As it is, we do not yet see everything in subjection to them." Hebrews 2:8 NRSV, HCSB, RSV

Should a translation read exactly as an interlinear?
"All too often translators turn to an interlinear edition as the final word. They consider it the last appeal because the Greek or Hebrew words are right there on the page before them. They do not realize that such a volume provides answers which are too simple for some very complex problems. In interlinear versions textual problems disappear and problems of interpretation are literally "glossed over". In addition, they provide absolutely no real help in the important area of meaningful translation. An interlinear version is a tool. Like any tool, it can be misused. It can even be a dangerous instrument if the user does not know how to use it. It is a tool of limited value, and it is only as good as the materials that went into its making."
The Use and Limitations of Interlinear Editions by Dr. John Ellington, Bible Translator, April 1980

How the Word GOD Was Used In Early Christianity


When Men Could Become Gods

When talking about certain Bible texts referring to Christ as god, many simply do not understand that in early Christian history, the word "god" simply had a more fluid definition. Take note:

"The pre-Arian discussion of the Angel-Christology did not turn simply on the question whether Christ was an angel, but on another issue, namely, in what sense could he, as an angel, rank as God. The explanation which was offered by the supporters of the Angel-Christology was that Christ, according to his nature, was a high angel, but that he was named 'God'; for the designation 'God' was ambiguous. The word 'God' did mean, in the first place, the absolute divine omnipotence but it was also used for the beings who served this deus verus [Latin, 'god true'= (the) true God]. That these were designated 'gods' implies reverence and recognition of Him who sent them and whom they thus represented. Consequently in the Scriptures (Exod. xxii, 28),  not only angels,  but even men could be called 'gods' [cf. Ps. 8:5; Heb. 2:7, 9; Ps. 82:6, 7; John 10:34, 35] without  according  them the status in the strict sense. Even Latantius [260-330 C.E.] had thought in this way2 ... 2 Latantius, inst. Epitome [The Epitome Of The Divine Institutes], 37."-Martin Werner, The Formation Of Christian Dogma, p. 140.

"I said you are gods. Scripture gives the name of gods to those on whom God has conferred an honourable office. He whom God has separated, to be distinguished above all others [His Son] is far more worthy of this honourable title ... The passage which Christ quotes [at John 10:34] is in Psalm lxxxii [82], 6, I have said, You are gods, and all of you are children of the Most High; where God expostulates with the kings and judges of the earth, who tyrannically abuse the authority and power for their own sinful passions, for oppressing the poor, and for every evil action ... Christ applies this to the case in hand, that they receive the name of gods, be- cause they are God's ministers for governing the world. For the same reason Scripture calls the angels gods, because by them the glory of God beams forth on the world ... In short, let us know that magistrates are called gods, because God has given them authority."-John Calvin, Commentary on the Gospel According to John, p. 419, 20.

"We have learned that those only are deified who have lived near to God in holiness and virtue."-Justin Martyr, The First Apology Of Justin, chapter XXI (21); ANF, Vol. I, p. 170.

"For we cast blame upon Him, because we have not been made gods from the beginning, but at first merely men, then at length gods;"-Irenaeus, Irenaeus Against Heresies, Book IV (4), chapter XXXVIII (38), § 4; ANF, Vol. I, p. 52

"[the Son] having bestowed on us the truly great, divine, and inalienable inheritance of the Father, deifying man by heavenly teaching,"-Clement of Alexandria, Exhortation To The Heathen (or, The Greeks, or, The Gentiles), chapter XI (11); ANF, Vol. II, p. 203.

"But let us, O children of the Father-nurslings of the good Instructor [Christ]-fulfil the Father's will ... and meditating on the heavenly mode of life according to which we have been deified, let us anoint ourselves with the perennial, immortal bloom of gladness."-Clement of Alexandria, The Instructor (Peadagogus), Book I, chapter XII (12); ANF, Vol. II, p. 234.

"The Creator did not wish to make him [mankind] a god, and failed in His aim; nor an angel-be not deceived-but a man. For if He had wished to make thee a god, He could have done so. Thou hast the example of the Logos [the Word, the Son]"-Hippolytus, The Refutation Of All Heresies, Book X (10), chapter XXIX (29); ANF, Vol. V (5), p. 151.

"And thou shalt be a companion of the Deity, and a co-heir with Christ, no longer enslaved by lusts or passions, and never again wasted by disease. For thou hast become God ... For the Deity, (by condescension,) does not diminish aught of the dignity of His divine perfection; having made thee even God unto His glory!"-ibid., chapter XXX (30); ibid., p. 153.

"If, therefore, man has become immortal, he will also be God. And if he is made God by water and by the Holy Spirit after the regeneration of the laver he is found to be also joint-heir with Christ after the resurrection of the dead."-Hippolytus, Discourse On The Holy Theophany, § 8; ANF, Vol. V, p. 237.

Then a Virgin conceived, and the Word became flesh that flesh might become God (Ambrose of Milan. Concerning Virginity (Book I, Chapter 11)

...the man can become God, and a child of God. For we read, "I have said, You are gods, and all of you are children of the Most High" (John Chrysostom. Homily 32 on the Acts of the Apostles

The 5th century Bishop Ibas of Edessa: I do not envy Christ His becoming God, for I can become God no less than He (Labourt J. Transcribed by John Fobian. Ibas. The Catholic Encyclopedia, Volume VII. Published 1910. New York: Robert Appleton Company. Nihil Obstat, June 1, 1910. Remy Lafort, S.T.D., Censor. Imprimatur. +John Cardinal Farley, Archbishop of New York).


But both Jesus Himself and His disciples desired that His followers should believe not merely in His Godhead and miracles, as if He had not also been a partaker of human nature, and had assumed the human flesh which "lusts against the Spirit;" but they saw also that the power which had descended into human nature, and into the midst of human miseries, and which had assumed a human soul and body, contributed through faith, along with its divine elements, to the salvation of believers, when they see that from Him there began the union of the divine with the human nature, in order that the human, by communion with the divine, might rise to be divine, not in Jesus alone, but in all those who not only believe, but enter upon the life which Jesus taught, and which elevates to friendship with God and communion with Him every one who lives according to the precepts of Jesus (Origen. Contra Celsus, Book III, Chapter 28).

"give thanks to the God of gods. The prophet is referring to those gods of whom it is written: I said ‘you are gods’ and again ‘god arises in the divine assembly’ they who cease to be mere men, abandon the ways of vice an are become perfect, are gods and the sons of the most high..." Jerome, The Homilies of Saint Jerome, 106–353.

"For He [the Son of God] was made man that we might be made God."-Athanasisus, Incarnation Of The Word, (De Incarnatione Verbi Dei), The Nicene and Post-Nicene Fathers, Edinburgh, T&T Clark; Grand Rapids, William B. Eerdmans Publishing Co.; Second Series, Vol. IV (4), p. 65,  reprinting of October,  1987.  "For He has become Man, that He might deify us in  Himself,  and  He has been  born  of a  woman,  and  begotten  of  a Virgin in order to transfer to Himself our erring generation, and that we may become henceforth a holy race, and 'partakers of the Divine Nature,' as blessed Peter  wrote. (2 Peter 1:4)-Athanasius, Letters of Athanasius, (Lx. Ad Adelphiun), 60.4; ibid., p. 576.

"but He himself that justifies also deifies, for by justifying He makes sons of God. For He has given them power to become the sons of God, (John 1:12). If then we have been made sons of God, we have also been made gods." Augustine, On the Psalms, 50:2.

"Deification (Greek Theosis) is for orthodoxy the goal of every Christian. Man, according to the Bible, is ‘made in the image and likeness of God’...it is possible for man to become like God, to become deified, to become God by grace. This doctrine is based on many passages of both O.T. and N.T. (Psalms 82: (81) .6; 2 Peter 1:4), and it is essentially the teaching both of St. Paul, though he tends to use the language of filial adoption (Romans 8:9-17, Galatians 4:5-7) and the fourth gospel (John 17:21-23)." [Alan Richardson (editor), The Westminster Dictionary of Christian Theology (Westminster: John Knox Press, 1983)]

"The language of 2 Peter is taken up by St. Irenaeus, in his famous phrase, ‘if the Word has been made man, it is so that men may be made gods; (adv. Haer v, pref.), And becomes the standard in Greek theology. In the fourth century St. Athanasius repeats Irenaeus almost word for word, and in the fifth century St. Cyril of Alexandria says that we shall become sons ‘by participation’ (Greek methexis). Deification is the central idea in the spirituality of St. Maximus the confessor, for whom the doctrine is corollary of the incarnation: ‘deification, briefly, is the encompassing and fulfillment of all times and ages’,...and St. Symeon the new theologian at the end of the tenth century writes, ‘he who is God by nature converses with those whom he has made gods by grace, as a friend converses with his friends, face to face...’

Finally, it should be noted that deification does not mean absorption into God, since the deified creature remains itself and distinct. It is the whole human being, body and soul, who is transfigured in the spirit into the likeness of the divine nature, and deification is the goal of every Christian." Joseph A. Fitzmyer, Pauline Theology: a brief sketch (Prentice-Hall, 1967), 42

"'God became man, that we might become God' was a commonplace of doctrinal theology at least until the time of Augustine, and that "deification holds a very large place in the writings of the fathers...We find it in Irenaeus as well as in Clement, in Athanasius as well in Gregory of Nysee. St. Augustine was no more afraid of deificari in Latin than Origen of apotheosis in Greek...To modern ears the word deification sounds not only strange but arrogant and shocking." [William Ralph Inge, Christian Mysticism (London, Metheun & Co., 1948[1899]), 13, 356.]

Monogenes, Unigenitus, Monogennetos and "only-begotten"


Claim: "The translation of the Greek word "monogenes" describes the Sonshipthat Christ has with His Father. This unique relationship Jesus has with His Father can reveal some powerful things to us. Can He be either "only-begotten Son" (KJV) or the "only Son" (NIV) of the Father?
Due to an unfortunate, although well intended, set of circumstances this crucial term has come to us in many of our translations in a form that suggests that the Son of God was actually begotten, that is, that he had a beginning. The Old Latin versions correctly translated monogenes as unicus (only), and so did Jerome (A.D. 347-419) where it was not applied to Jesus. But when referring to Jesus, Jerome appears to have been influenced by the Orations of Gregory of Nazianzus1 (A.D. 329-390) who, in discussing the eternal relation between the Father and the Son, spoke of the Father as gennetor "begetter" and the Son as gennema "begotten." To answer the Arian claims that Jesus was not begotten, but made, Jerome translated it as unigenitus (only begotten), in these passages that were referring to Jesus Christ. The influence of Jeromes Vulgate on the King  James Version made "only begotten" the standard English rendition." Italics mine

 
Reply: This is a common explanation, but not a great one. It does not explain that even the apologetic Hilary of Poitiers (ca. 315-367 CE) in his De Trinitate, also uses the term unigenitus when quoting John 1:14, 18 from the Old Latin. Now look at the words in italics. Did Jerome apply unicus to Jesus or not. When we read the following sentence we find that he didn't, but that is not what the preceding sentence says. In fact, the early Christian writers would refer to Christ as "only-begotten" and the Father always as "unbegotten" (see Dialogue with Trypho, ANF 1, 263). Justin Martyr was quite adamant about this when he wrote, "God begat before all creatures a Beginning, who was a certain rational power proceeding from Himself, who is called by the Holy Spirit, now the Glory of the Lord, now the Son, again Wisdom, again Angel, then God, and then Lord, and Logos;...For He can be called by those names, since He ministers to the Father's will, and since He was begotten of the Father by an act of will."

Claim: "Although the English words of "only-Begotten" are found only six times in the New Testament, the Greek word (monogenes) appears nine times, and more often in the Septuagint. It is used literally of an only child: "the only son of his mother" (Lk 7:12); "an only daughter" (Lk 8:42); "mine only child" (Lk 9:38); "Isaac .... his only begotten" (Heb 11:17). In all other places in the New Testament it refers to Jesus Christ as "the only begotten Son of God" (Jn 1:14,18; 3:16,18; 1 Jn 4:9). In these passages, it might be translated as "the only son of God"; for the emphasis seems to be on His uniqueness, rather than on His sonship, although both ideas are certainly present. But how do modern Biblical scholars translate this word? According to Moulton and Milligan’s Vocabulary of the Greek Testament: "monogenos is literally ‘one of a kind,’ ‘only,’ ‘unique’ (unicus), not ‘only-begotten,’ which would be monogennetos (unigenitus). Moulton and Milligan’s are telling us that the Greek word "monogennetos" meaning "only-Begotten" is not found anywhere in the Greek New Testament. So what are the New Testament writers trying to convey by the use of the correct word monogenos?"
 
Reply: The reason that monogennetos is not used by the Christian Bible writers or the ANF (Ante-Nicene Fathers-with the common exception to Ignateous) is that it was usually a derogatory term used to denote frailty and weakness (see Thayers and Vines 1084). Such a term would show a lack of respect for the Son of God.

Claim: The first part of this Greek word monogenes is mono which means "only," the second half of the word is from an adjectival form derived from genos, which means "origin, race, stock," so the two words put together mean "one of a kind." One of the main arguments is that the -genes suffix is related to the verb ginomai rather than gennao, thus acquiring the meaning "category" or "genus" (category of biological classification) instead of "to beget." The word emphasizes the unique relationship that the Father has to the Son. It does not suggest the idea of begotten by one alone, by one father with-out the assistance of a mother, suggesting the doctrine of eternal generation. Instead it suggest the unique position to the Father and thus His unique ability to reveal the Father.
 
Reply: I agree with the above to an extent. "Unique" is a better translation than most, but it never quite explains how the subject is unique. In the N.T., monogenes is used in a filial way, one that is used for offspring...see Thayers Greek Lexicon & BAGD. In fact the BAGD states that it could be analagous to prototokos (firstborn). In view of the above evidence, John V. Dahms in his The Johannine Use Of Monogenes Reconsidered NTS 29, 1983, p.231 states: We have examined all of the evidence which has come to our attention concerning the meaning of monogenes in the Johannine writings and have found the majority view of modern scholarship has very little to support it. On the other hand, the external evidence, especially that from Philo, Justin and Tertullian, and the internal evidence from the context of its occurrences, makes clear that 'only begotten' is the most accurate translation after all."

"Why do you call me good? Nobody is good, except one, God."


Ron Rhodes interprets it as saying "Do you realize what you are saying when you call Me good? Are you saying I am God?" and "'If I am not deity, don't call me good, for only God is good.' Or perhaps: 'You have given me a title which belongs only to God. Do you understand and mean it?' Clearly, Matthew 10:17, 18 does not support the...contention that Jesus is not God Almighty simply because he lacks the goodness of God." pp. 157, 158 Reasoning from the Scriptures....

There are several things wrong with the above. Firstly, the verses in question are at Mark 10:17, 18, NOT in Matthew.

Also, Vine's says in his Expository Dictionary of the Bible:

    "God is essentially, absolutely and consummately "good," Mat_19:17; Mar_10:18; Luk_18:19."

This sets him apart from others that are also called GOOD:

Mat 25:21 "And his lord said to him, Well done, good and faithful slave." LITV
Luk 23:50 "Now there was a man named Joseph from the Jewish town of Arimathe'a. He was a member of the council, a good and righteous man" RSV
Acts 11:24 "For he [Barnabas] was a good man, and was full of the Holy Spirit and of faith" Weymouth
1 Pet. 2:18 "Servants, be subject to your masters with all fear, not only to those good and forbearing, but also to the perverse ones." MKJV

Additionally, in Mark, only the Father is hO QEOS, never Jesus. Jesus addresses him in this fashion at Mark 15:34 (hO QEOS MOU [hO QEOS MOU])

That Mark 10:18 should be seen as a rebuke is cemented 2 verses later, where the same man THEN refers to him simply as "Teacher" without the qualifying "Good.":

    "He said to him, 'Teacher, I have kept all these since my youth.'" NRSV

Did Jesus correct him here? No. The man understood then only God is essentially, absolutely and consummately "good," and that God was NOT Jesus.

Rhodes complains that some view this verse as saying that the Father is in a "'class' distinct from Jesus Christ", but this is how is it has historically always been viewed:

    Clement of Alexandria Strom. V. 10.63 (c. 260 CE)
    "And if, the Creator above all is confessed to be just, and the Lord to be the Son of the Creator; then the Lord is the Son of Him who is just. Wherefore also Paul says, "But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested; " and again, that you may better conceive of God, "even the righteousness of God by the faith of Jesus Christ upon all that believe; for there is no difference." And, witnessing further to the truth, he adds after a little, "through the forbearance of God, in order to show that He is just, and that Jesus is the justifier of him who is of faith." And that he knows that what is just is good, appears by his saying, "So that the law is holy, and the commandment holy, and just, and good," using both names to denote the same power. But "no one is good," except His Father." ( hEIS AGAQOS, hO PATHR )

    Hippolytus - haer. V.7.25 (pre-222 CE)
    'They affirm, then, concerning the substance of the seed which is a cause of all existent things, that it is none of these, but that it produces and forms all things that are made, expressing themselves thus: "I become what I wish, and I am what I am: on account of this I say, that what puts all things in motion is itself unmoved. For what exists remains forming all things, and nought of existing things is made." He says that this (one) alone is good, and that what is spoken by the Saviour is declared concerning this (one): "Why do you say that am good? One is good, my Father which is in the heavens , (hEIS ESTIN AGAQOS, hO PATHR EN TOIS OURANOIS) who causeth His sun to rise upon the just and unjust, and sendeth rain upon saints and sinners."'

    Justin Martyr - Dial. 101.2 (c. 150 CE)
    "Then what follows of the Psalm is this, in which He says: `Our fathers trusted in Thee; they trusted, and Thou didst deliver them. They cried unto Thee, and were not confounded. But I am a worm, and no man; a reproach of men, and despised of the people; 'which show that He admits them to be His fathers, who trusted in God and were saved by Him, who also were the fathers of the Virgin, by whom He was born and became man; and He foretells that He shall be saved by the same God, but boasts not in accomplishing anything through His own will or might. For when on earth He acted in the very same manner, and answered to one who addressed Him as `Good Master: '`Why callest thou me good? One is good, my Father who is in heaven.' (Luke xviii. 18 f.)"

    the Pseudo-Clementine Homiles XVI.3.4 (c. 260 CE)
    "AT break of day, when Peter went forth to discourse, Simon anticipated him, and said: "When I went away yesterday, I promised to you to return to-day, and in a discussion show that he who flamed the world is not the highest God, but that the highest God is another who alone is good, and who has remained unknown up to this time. At once, then, state to me whether you maintain that the framer of the world is the same as the lawgiver or not? If, then, he is the lawgiver, he is just; but if he is just, he is not good. But if he is not good, then it was another that Jesus proclaimed, when he said, `Do not call me good; for one is good, the Father who is in the heavens.'" (hO GAR AGAQOS hEIS ESTIN, hO PATHR hO EN TOIS OURANOIS)

    Justin, Dial. 101.2 hEIS ESTIN AGAQOS, hO PATHR MOU hO EN TOIS OURANOIS - "One is good, my Father in the heavens."

    Taitian Diatessaron (c. 172 CE) , as per Ephrem Syrus, Comm. on the Diatessaron, XV,9 (Syr & Arm] "Unus est bonus, Pater, qui in caelo."

    Irenaeus, haer. I.210.2 (pre-185 CE) "hEIS ESTIN AGAQOS, hO PATHR EN TOIS OURANOIS"

    Hippolytus, haer. V.7.25 (pre-222 CE) "hEIS ESTIN AGAQOS, hO PATHR EN TOIS OURANOIS"

    Clement of Alexandria, Strom. V.10.63 (c. 207 CE) "hEIS AGAQOS, hO PATHR"

    the Pseudo-Clementine Homilies XVI.3.4 (c. 260 CE) "hO GAR AGAQOS hEIS ESTIN, hO PATHR hO EN TOIS OURANOIS"

    Vetus Latina MS e (apud Matthew; V cent) "Unus est bonus, pater."

    Vetus Latina MS d (apud Luke; V cent) "Nemo bonus misi unus Deus pater."

Bottom Line? The ancients viewed the Good God at Mark 10:18 NOT as Christ, but his Father. 


For a list of all of my disks and ebooks (PDF and Amazon) click here