Thursday, July 5, 2018

George V. Smith on Granville Sharp's Rule (Titus 2:13)

George Vance Smith on Sharp's Rule, from The Bible and Its Theology as Popularly Taught: A Review, Comparison, and Re-Statement by G.Vance Smith, B.A. Philos. & Theol. Doct. 1892

In the Epistles there are two passages which have been considered of great importance, as direct testimonies for the deity of Christ. They have not been noticed in the body of this work, chiefly from the desire not to burden the text with too many of such details; but a few brief remarks may be introduced here. The passages referred to are Titus ii. 13 and 1 John v. 20, to which may be added 2 Pet. i. 1 (R. V.)

Titus ii. 13.—In the Authorized Version this runs as follows: "Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ." Dean Alford (N. T. revised) varies thus: ". . .. hope and the manifestation of the glory of the great God and of our Saviour Jesus Christ." Thus, many others, as Winer, Bunsen and De Wette, distinguishing between "the great God" and Jesus Christ.

Dr. Liddon, however, as might be expected, renders thus: "Looking for the blessed hope and appearing of the glory of our great God and Saviour Jesus Christ," exactly following the translation of Bishop Ellicott (Past. Ep. p. 259). R.V. also reads, "our great God and Saviour, Jesus Christ."

The R.V. rendering of 2 Pet. i. 1 is similar: "the righteousness of our God and Saviour Jesus Christ." In both these cases the margin fairly gives notice that the old translation may be correct; and in both eases the American Revision Committee recommend that the new text and its margin should change places. Thus it is clear that the old translation carries as much authority as the new one; and the question may be asked, Why then did the English revisers alter it—and that too in opposition to their own good rule, to make as few alterations as possible? The following statement applies to both these texts.

It is acknowledged by the highest authorities that there is nothing in the grammatical form of either passage to determine its translation the one way or the other. It may be correctly represented by both renderings. In the presence of this doubt, the ordinary reader may be well satisfied to follow the guidance of such scholars as Meyer and Winer, who (in Titus ii. 13) are agreed in telling us that two subjects of thought are here designated, and that Jesus Christ accordingly is not described as "the great God." The judgment of these scholars is the more valuable because their conclusion has been dictated, they tell us, simply by a due regard to the usual tenor of St. Paul's language, in reference to God and to Christ. Winer enforces his view of Tit. ii. 13, by the following note: "In the above remarks I had no intention to deny that, in point of grammar, SWTHROS HMWN [Saviour of us, i.e. our Saviour] may be regarded as a second predicate, jointly depending on the article TOU; but the dogmatic conviction derived from Paul's writings, that this Apostle cannot have called Christ the great God, induced me to shew that there is no grammatical obstacle to our taking the clause KAI SWT....CRISTOU by itself, as referring to a second subject." To this note the English translator of Winer appends these words:—"This passage is very carefully examined by Bishop Ellicott and Dean Alford in loc; and though these writers come to different conclusions (the latter agreeing with Winer, the former rendering the words, 'of our great God and Saviour Jesus Christ'), they are entirely agreed as to the admissibility of both renderings in point of grammar." (Winer, Gram. N. T., ed. by Moulton, p. 162.)

Probably nothing more is needed to enable the English reader to see that the rendering of the Authorized is amply justified and could only have been changed under some unavowed dogmatic influence. The point in question may be easily illustrated. Thus: the words hO FILIPPOS KAI ALEXANDOS do not convey or imply that Philip and Alexander are one and the same person, because they were known to have been two; so neither does hO QEOS HMWN KAI KURIOS necessarily imply that God and Christ are one and the same, inasmuch as they also were equally known to be two, and are everywhere recognized and spoken of as two.

To the correctness of the resulting position there is a remarkable testimony under the hand and seal of the revisers themselves! In 2 Thess. i. 12, we have exactly the same form of expression as in 2 Pet. i. 1. The words and their order are all the same, except only that KURIOS, Lord, takes the place of SWTHR, Saviour. Thus:—(a) 2 Pet. i. 1: literally, "the God of us and Saviour Jesus Christ;" (b) 2 Thess. i. 12: literally, "the God of us and Lord Jesus Christ." In (a) the R.V. rendering is "our God and Saviour Jesus Christ;" in (b) it is "our God and the Lord Jesus Christ." To which of these inconsistent translations of the same form of words will the revisers adhere as correct?

Bishop Ellicott has the following remark—quite in harmony with the above interpretation: "It must be candidly avowed that it is very doubtful whether on the grammatical principle last alluded to [the union of two substantives under the vinculum of a common article] the interpretation of this passage can be fully settled." The Bishop goes on to give in detail the reasons which have determined him to render as he has done, and concludes his comment in these words: "It ought not to be suppressed that some of the best versions, Vulgate, Syriac, Coptic, Armenian (not, however, Ethiopic), and some Fathers of unquestioned orthodoxy, adopted the other interpretation the true rendering of the clause really turns more upon exegesis than upon grammar, and this the student should not fail clearly to bear in mind. (Pastoral Epistles, p. 201.) This last remark is one to which every fair-minded reader will assent; but he will remember that exegesis, here as elsewhere, ought to be illustrated and confirmed by the usual strain of the N.T. writings, and should not be in opposition to it.

The same excellent authority, although on exegetical grounds defending the new rendering, has yet expressly guarded himself against too servile a deference to the rule of the article above referred to. His words are clear and to the point:—"Lastly, several examples of what is called Granville Sharp's rule, or the inference from the presence of the article before only the first of two substantives connected by KAI, that they both refer to the same person or class, must be deemed very doubtful. The rule is sound in principle, but in the case of proper names or quasi-proper names, cannot safely be pressed."—Aids to Faith (4th ed.), p. 462

[Comp. the well known words of Bishop Pearson: "We must not think to decide this controversy by the articles, of which the sacred penmen were not curious, and the transcribers have been very careless." —On the Creed (ed. 1842), p. 229, note.]

Romans 8:1 and the Missing "Now" in the New World Translation


The website http://www.jwinfoline.com/Documents/New_World_Translation/Is_the_nwt_reliable.htm has:
"In Romans 8:1 where the original says "There is therefore now no condemnation to those who are in Christ Jesus..." the Society has deleted the word "now". This omission is necessary to support the belief that there is no assurance of salvation right now for any Jehovah's Witness."
One author, Robert Bowman, has:
"The NWT also omits key words on occasion, when retaining them in the text would seem to contradict JW doctrine. The most glaring example is Romans 8:1, "Therefore those in union with Christ Jesus have no condemnation," which omits the word "now." This omission is evidently motivated by the fact that JWs do not believe anyone can claim to be free of condemnation now."
[The New World Translation On Trial Part Two in a Four-part Series on JWs and the Bible from the Christian Research Journal, Fall, 1989, page 28. The Editor-in-Chief of the Christian Research Journal is Elliot Miller.]
Reply: Does the original though, according to the first accusation, really say, "There is therefore now no condemnation to those who are in Christ Jesus..."?
In Brown & Comfort's Interlinear, once you remove the words added in the brackets for clarification, reads, when utilizing their numbering system, as follows:
"NOW THEN NO CONDEMNATION TO THE ONES IN CHRIST JESUS." [UBS4 Greek Text]
The accompanying translation (NRSV) reads,
"There is therefore now no condemnation for those who are in Christ Jesus."
The accuser above has confused a newer english translation, the New Revised Standard Version 1989 for the original Greek.
When it comes to translating the Greek word in question, NUN, the NWT is actually closer to the Greek. The NWT uses just ONE word to translate NUN, while the NRSV needs FOUR english words to translate this one Greek word, and yet, only the NWT is singled out as tampering with the text.
The NWT has not DELETED the word "now," it was simply translated as "therefore."

Another way to translate NUN would be to render it as "So" or "Thus."
Consider:
(God's Word Bible) So those who are believers in Christ Jesus can no longer be condemned. (New Jerusalem Bible) Thus, condemnation will never come to those who are in Christ Jesus,
(New Living Translation) So now there is no condemnation for those
who belong to Christ Jesus.
(Bible in Basic English) For this cause those who are in Christ Jesus will not be judged as sinners.
(Jerusalem Bible) "The reason, therefore, why those who are in Christ Jesus are not condemned."
(C.B. Williams) So then there is no condemnation at all for those who are in union with Christ Jesus.
(Heinz Cassirer's New Covenant) Well then, no sentence of condemnation stands against those who are in union with Christ Jesus."
(Faithful NT) [There is] therefore no condemnation to those in Christ Jesus.
(New English Bible) The conclusion of the matter is this: there is no condemnation for those who are united with Christ."
(21st Century NT) So then there can be no condemnation of those who are united with Christ Jesus.
(Murdoch) There is therefore no condemnation, to them who, in Jesus Messiah, walk not after the flesh.
(Goodspeed) So there is no condemnation any more for those who are in union with Christ Jesus.
(Jewish NT) Therefore, there is no longer any condemnation awaiting those who are in union with the Messiah Yeshua.
(Unvarnished NT) Now then, no condemnation awaits those in union Christ Jesus.
(C.K. Williams) There is now, therefore, no sentence of 'Guilty' for those that are in Christ Jesus.
(J.W.C. Wand) For those who are in Christ there is no condemnation.
(Lattimore) Thus there is no condemnation for those who are in Christ Jesus.
According to the BAGD, NUN, can act to describe something, "as far as the present situation is compared" or as "for now I tell you this."
We see this elsewhere, as at Acts 4:29; 20:32; 27:22.
The BAG 1957 edition, translates the occurence of NUN at Romans 8:1 as "'so' or 'thus now'"
Consider also the different words that Abbott-Smith's Lexicon allows for NUN: "Now, presently...presently, forthwith, ...now, therefore, now, however, as it is..."
Can we now rightly accuse the above translators of being motivated by the fact that they also do not believe anyone can claim to be free of condemnation now? Or is that the above accusers simply are ignorant of the issues involved?

Other examples are as follows:
"But as it is, you are seeking to kill Me, a man who has told you the truth, which I heard from God; this Abraham did not do." John 8:40 NASB, NJB, NIV ("in fact" Weymouth)
"As it is, My kingdom does not have its origin here." John 18:36 HCSB, NWT, NASB, NJB, NRSV ("as a matter of fact" Weymouth)
"Therefore remain in him now, children, so that when he appears we may be fearless, and not shrink from him in shame at his coming." 1 John 2:28 New Jerusalem Bible
"And so I ask you, dear Lady: let us all love one another. This is no new command I am writing you; it is the command which we have had from the beginning." 2 John 5 TEV
"Otherwise, your children would be unclean, but as it is, they are holy." 1 Cor. 7:14 NRSV, RSV, ESV, TEV, NIV "in fact" NJB; "in reality" Weymouth.
"But as it is, God arranged the members in the body, each one of them, as he chose." 1 Cor. 12:18 NRSV, RSV, ESV, TEV, NJB, ("in fact" NIV; "as a matter of fact" Weymouth)
"As it is, we do not yet see everything in subjection to them." Hebrews 2:8 NRSV, HCSB, RSV

Should a translation read exactly as an interlinear?
"All too often translators turn to an interlinear edition as the final word. They consider it the last appeal because the Greek or Hebrew words are right there on the page before them. They do not realize that such a volume provides answers which are too simple for some very complex problems. In interlinear versions textual problems disappear and problems of interpretation are literally "glossed over". In addition, they provide absolutely no real help in the important area of meaningful translation. An interlinear version is a tool. Like any tool, it can be misused. It can even be a dangerous instrument if the user does not know how to use it. It is a tool of limited value, and it is only as good as the materials that went into its making."
The Use and Limitations of Interlinear Editions by Dr. John Ellington, Bible Translator, April 1980

How the Word GOD Was Used In Early Christianity


When Men Could Become Gods

When talking about certain Bible texts referring to Christ as god, many simply do not understand that in early Christian history, the word "god" simply had a more fluid definition. Take note:

"The pre-Arian discussion of the Angel-Christology did not turn simply on the question whether Christ was an angel, but on another issue, namely, in what sense could he, as an angel, rank as God. The explanation which was offered by the supporters of the Angel-Christology was that Christ, according to his nature, was a high angel, but that he was named 'God'; for the designation 'God' was ambiguous. The word 'God' did mean, in the first place, the absolute divine omnipotence but it was also used for the beings who served this deus verus [Latin, 'god true'= (the) true God]. That these were designated 'gods' implies reverence and recognition of Him who sent them and whom they thus represented. Consequently in the Scriptures (Exod. xxii, 28),  not only angels,  but even men could be called 'gods' [cf. Ps. 8:5; Heb. 2:7, 9; Ps. 82:6, 7; John 10:34, 35] without  according  them the status in the strict sense. Even Latantius [260-330 C.E.] had thought in this way2 ... 2 Latantius, inst. Epitome [The Epitome Of The Divine Institutes], 37."-Martin Werner, The Formation Of Christian Dogma, p. 140.

"I said you are gods. Scripture gives the name of gods to those on whom God has conferred an honourable office. He whom God has separated, to be distinguished above all others [His Son] is far more worthy of this honourable title ... The passage which Christ quotes [at John 10:34] is in Psalm lxxxii [82], 6, I have said, You are gods, and all of you are children of the Most High; where God expostulates with the kings and judges of the earth, who tyrannically abuse the authority and power for their own sinful passions, for oppressing the poor, and for every evil action ... Christ applies this to the case in hand, that they receive the name of gods, be- cause they are God's ministers for governing the world. For the same reason Scripture calls the angels gods, because by them the glory of God beams forth on the world ... In short, let us know that magistrates are called gods, because God has given them authority."-John Calvin, Commentary on the Gospel According to John, p. 419, 20.

"We have learned that those only are deified who have lived near to God in holiness and virtue."-Justin Martyr, The First Apology Of Justin, chapter XXI (21); ANF, Vol. I, p. 170.

"For we cast blame upon Him, because we have not been made gods from the beginning, but at first merely men, then at length gods;"-Irenaeus, Irenaeus Against Heresies, Book IV (4), chapter XXXVIII (38), § 4; ANF, Vol. I, p. 52

"[the Son] having bestowed on us the truly great, divine, and inalienable inheritance of the Father, deifying man by heavenly teaching,"-Clement of Alexandria, Exhortation To The Heathen (or, The Greeks, or, The Gentiles), chapter XI (11); ANF, Vol. II, p. 203.

"But let us, O children of the Father-nurslings of the good Instructor [Christ]-fulfil the Father's will ... and meditating on the heavenly mode of life according to which we have been deified, let us anoint ourselves with the perennial, immortal bloom of gladness."-Clement of Alexandria, The Instructor (Peadagogus), Book I, chapter XII (12); ANF, Vol. II, p. 234.

"The Creator did not wish to make him [mankind] a god, and failed in His aim; nor an angel-be not deceived-but a man. For if He had wished to make thee a god, He could have done so. Thou hast the example of the Logos [the Word, the Son]"-Hippolytus, The Refutation Of All Heresies, Book X (10), chapter XXIX (29); ANF, Vol. V (5), p. 151.

"And thou shalt be a companion of the Deity, and a co-heir with Christ, no longer enslaved by lusts or passions, and never again wasted by disease. For thou hast become God ... For the Deity, (by condescension,) does not diminish aught of the dignity of His divine perfection; having made thee even God unto His glory!"-ibid., chapter XXX (30); ibid., p. 153.

"If, therefore, man has become immortal, he will also be God. And if he is made God by water and by the Holy Spirit after the regeneration of the laver he is found to be also joint-heir with Christ after the resurrection of the dead."-Hippolytus, Discourse On The Holy Theophany, § 8; ANF, Vol. V, p. 237.

Then a Virgin conceived, and the Word became flesh that flesh might become God (Ambrose of Milan. Concerning Virginity (Book I, Chapter 11)

...the man can become God, and a child of God. For we read, "I have said, You are gods, and all of you are children of the Most High" (John Chrysostom. Homily 32 on the Acts of the Apostles

The 5th century Bishop Ibas of Edessa: I do not envy Christ His becoming God, for I can become God no less than He (Labourt J. Transcribed by John Fobian. Ibas. The Catholic Encyclopedia, Volume VII. Published 1910. New York: Robert Appleton Company. Nihil Obstat, June 1, 1910. Remy Lafort, S.T.D., Censor. Imprimatur. +John Cardinal Farley, Archbishop of New York).


But both Jesus Himself and His disciples desired that His followers should believe not merely in His Godhead and miracles, as if He had not also been a partaker of human nature, and had assumed the human flesh which "lusts against the Spirit;" but they saw also that the power which had descended into human nature, and into the midst of human miseries, and which had assumed a human soul and body, contributed through faith, along with its divine elements, to the salvation of believers, when they see that from Him there began the union of the divine with the human nature, in order that the human, by communion with the divine, might rise to be divine, not in Jesus alone, but in all those who not only believe, but enter upon the life which Jesus taught, and which elevates to friendship with God and communion with Him every one who lives according to the precepts of Jesus (Origen. Contra Celsus, Book III, Chapter 28).

"give thanks to the God of gods. The prophet is referring to those gods of whom it is written: I said ‘you are gods’ and again ‘god arises in the divine assembly’ they who cease to be mere men, abandon the ways of vice an are become perfect, are gods and the sons of the most high..." Jerome, The Homilies of Saint Jerome, 106–353.

"For He [the Son of God] was made man that we might be made God."-Athanasisus, Incarnation Of The Word, (De Incarnatione Verbi Dei), The Nicene and Post-Nicene Fathers, Edinburgh, T&T Clark; Grand Rapids, William B. Eerdmans Publishing Co.; Second Series, Vol. IV (4), p. 65,  reprinting of October,  1987.  "For He has become Man, that He might deify us in  Himself,  and  He has been  born  of a  woman,  and  begotten  of  a Virgin in order to transfer to Himself our erring generation, and that we may become henceforth a holy race, and 'partakers of the Divine Nature,' as blessed Peter  wrote. (2 Peter 1:4)-Athanasius, Letters of Athanasius, (Lx. Ad Adelphiun), 60.4; ibid., p. 576.

"but He himself that justifies also deifies, for by justifying He makes sons of God. For He has given them power to become the sons of God, (John 1:12). If then we have been made sons of God, we have also been made gods." Augustine, On the Psalms, 50:2.

"Deification (Greek Theosis) is for orthodoxy the goal of every Christian. Man, according to the Bible, is ‘made in the image and likeness of God’...it is possible for man to become like God, to become deified, to become God by grace. This doctrine is based on many passages of both O.T. and N.T. (Psalms 82: (81) .6; 2 Peter 1:4), and it is essentially the teaching both of St. Paul, though he tends to use the language of filial adoption (Romans 8:9-17, Galatians 4:5-7) and the fourth gospel (John 17:21-23)." [Alan Richardson (editor), The Westminster Dictionary of Christian Theology (Westminster: John Knox Press, 1983)]

"The language of 2 Peter is taken up by St. Irenaeus, in his famous phrase, ‘if the Word has been made man, it is so that men may be made gods; (adv. Haer v, pref.), And becomes the standard in Greek theology. In the fourth century St. Athanasius repeats Irenaeus almost word for word, and in the fifth century St. Cyril of Alexandria says that we shall become sons ‘by participation’ (Greek methexis). Deification is the central idea in the spirituality of St. Maximus the confessor, for whom the doctrine is corollary of the incarnation: ‘deification, briefly, is the encompassing and fulfillment of all times and ages’,...and St. Symeon the new theologian at the end of the tenth century writes, ‘he who is God by nature converses with those whom he has made gods by grace, as a friend converses with his friends, face to face...’

Finally, it should be noted that deification does not mean absorption into God, since the deified creature remains itself and distinct. It is the whole human being, body and soul, who is transfigured in the spirit into the likeness of the divine nature, and deification is the goal of every Christian." Joseph A. Fitzmyer, Pauline Theology: a brief sketch (Prentice-Hall, 1967), 42

"'God became man, that we might become God' was a commonplace of doctrinal theology at least until the time of Augustine, and that "deification holds a very large place in the writings of the fathers...We find it in Irenaeus as well as in Clement, in Athanasius as well in Gregory of Nysee. St. Augustine was no more afraid of deificari in Latin than Origen of apotheosis in Greek...To modern ears the word deification sounds not only strange but arrogant and shocking." [William Ralph Inge, Christian Mysticism (London, Metheun & Co., 1948[1899]), 13, 356.]

Monogenes, Unigenitus, Monogennetos and "only-begotten"


Claim: "The translation of the Greek word "monogenes" describes the Sonshipthat Christ has with His Father. This unique relationship Jesus has with His Father can reveal some powerful things to us. Can He be either "only-begotten Son" (KJV) or the "only Son" (NIV) of the Father?
Due to an unfortunate, although well intended, set of circumstances this crucial term has come to us in many of our translations in a form that suggests that the Son of God was actually begotten, that is, that he had a beginning. The Old Latin versions correctly translated monogenes as unicus (only), and so did Jerome (A.D. 347-419) where it was not applied to Jesus. But when referring to Jesus, Jerome appears to have been influenced by the Orations of Gregory of Nazianzus1 (A.D. 329-390) who, in discussing the eternal relation between the Father and the Son, spoke of the Father as gennetor "begetter" and the Son as gennema "begotten." To answer the Arian claims that Jesus was not begotten, but made, Jerome translated it as unigenitus (only begotten), in these passages that were referring to Jesus Christ. The influence of Jeromes Vulgate on the King  James Version made "only begotten" the standard English rendition." Italics mine

 
Reply: This is a common explanation, but not a great one. It does not explain that even the apologetic Hilary of Poitiers (ca. 315-367 CE) in his De Trinitate, also uses the term unigenitus when quoting John 1:14, 18 from the Old Latin. Now look at the words in italics. Did Jerome apply unicus to Jesus or not. When we read the following sentence we find that he didn't, but that is not what the preceding sentence says. In fact, the early Christian writers would refer to Christ as "only-begotten" and the Father always as "unbegotten" (see Dialogue with Trypho, ANF 1, 263). Justin Martyr was quite adamant about this when he wrote, "God begat before all creatures a Beginning, who was a certain rational power proceeding from Himself, who is called by the Holy Spirit, now the Glory of the Lord, now the Son, again Wisdom, again Angel, then God, and then Lord, and Logos;...For He can be called by those names, since He ministers to the Father's will, and since He was begotten of the Father by an act of will."

Claim: "Although the English words of "only-Begotten" are found only six times in the New Testament, the Greek word (monogenes) appears nine times, and more often in the Septuagint. It is used literally of an only child: "the only son of his mother" (Lk 7:12); "an only daughter" (Lk 8:42); "mine only child" (Lk 9:38); "Isaac .... his only begotten" (Heb 11:17). In all other places in the New Testament it refers to Jesus Christ as "the only begotten Son of God" (Jn 1:14,18; 3:16,18; 1 Jn 4:9). In these passages, it might be translated as "the only son of God"; for the emphasis seems to be on His uniqueness, rather than on His sonship, although both ideas are certainly present. But how do modern Biblical scholars translate this word? According to Moulton and Milligan’s Vocabulary of the Greek Testament: "monogenos is literally ‘one of a kind,’ ‘only,’ ‘unique’ (unicus), not ‘only-begotten,’ which would be monogennetos (unigenitus). Moulton and Milligan’s are telling us that the Greek word "monogennetos" meaning "only-Begotten" is not found anywhere in the Greek New Testament. So what are the New Testament writers trying to convey by the use of the correct word monogenos?"
 
Reply: The reason that monogennetos is not used by the Christian Bible writers or the ANF (Ante-Nicene Fathers-with the common exception to Ignateous) is that it was usually a derogatory term used to denote frailty and weakness (see Thayers and Vines 1084). Such a term would show a lack of respect for the Son of God.

Claim: The first part of this Greek word monogenes is mono which means "only," the second half of the word is from an adjectival form derived from genos, which means "origin, race, stock," so the two words put together mean "one of a kind." One of the main arguments is that the -genes suffix is related to the verb ginomai rather than gennao, thus acquiring the meaning "category" or "genus" (category of biological classification) instead of "to beget." The word emphasizes the unique relationship that the Father has to the Son. It does not suggest the idea of begotten by one alone, by one father with-out the assistance of a mother, suggesting the doctrine of eternal generation. Instead it suggest the unique position to the Father and thus His unique ability to reveal the Father.
 
Reply: I agree with the above to an extent. "Unique" is a better translation than most, but it never quite explains how the subject is unique. In the N.T., monogenes is used in a filial way, one that is used for offspring...see Thayers Greek Lexicon & BAGD. In fact the BAGD states that it could be analagous to prototokos (firstborn). In view of the above evidence, John V. Dahms in his The Johannine Use Of Monogenes Reconsidered NTS 29, 1983, p.231 states: We have examined all of the evidence which has come to our attention concerning the meaning of monogenes in the Johannine writings and have found the majority view of modern scholarship has very little to support it. On the other hand, the external evidence, especially that from Philo, Justin and Tertullian, and the internal evidence from the context of its occurrences, makes clear that 'only begotten' is the most accurate translation after all."

"Why do you call me good? Nobody is good, except one, God."


Ron Rhodes interprets it as saying "Do you realize what you are saying when you call Me good? Are you saying I am God?" and "'If I am not deity, don't call me good, for only God is good.' Or perhaps: 'You have given me a title which belongs only to God. Do you understand and mean it?' Clearly, Matthew 10:17, 18 does not support the...contention that Jesus is not God Almighty simply because he lacks the goodness of God." pp. 157, 158 Reasoning from the Scriptures....

There are several things wrong with the above. Firstly, the verses in question are at Mark 10:17, 18, NOT in Matthew.

Also, Vine's says in his Expository Dictionary of the Bible:

    "God is essentially, absolutely and consummately "good," Mat_19:17; Mar_10:18; Luk_18:19."

This sets him apart from others that are also called GOOD:

Mat 25:21 "And his lord said to him, Well done, good and faithful slave." LITV
Luk 23:50 "Now there was a man named Joseph from the Jewish town of Arimathe'a. He was a member of the council, a good and righteous man" RSV
Acts 11:24 "For he [Barnabas] was a good man, and was full of the Holy Spirit and of faith" Weymouth
1 Pet. 2:18 "Servants, be subject to your masters with all fear, not only to those good and forbearing, but also to the perverse ones." MKJV

Additionally, in Mark, only the Father is hO QEOS, never Jesus. Jesus addresses him in this fashion at Mark 15:34 (hO QEOS MOU [hO QEOS MOU])

That Mark 10:18 should be seen as a rebuke is cemented 2 verses later, where the same man THEN refers to him simply as "Teacher" without the qualifying "Good.":

    "He said to him, 'Teacher, I have kept all these since my youth.'" NRSV

Did Jesus correct him here? No. The man understood then only God is essentially, absolutely and consummately "good," and that God was NOT Jesus.

Rhodes complains that some view this verse as saying that the Father is in a "'class' distinct from Jesus Christ", but this is how is it has historically always been viewed:

    Clement of Alexandria Strom. V. 10.63 (c. 260 CE)
    "And if, the Creator above all is confessed to be just, and the Lord to be the Son of the Creator; then the Lord is the Son of Him who is just. Wherefore also Paul says, "But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested; " and again, that you may better conceive of God, "even the righteousness of God by the faith of Jesus Christ upon all that believe; for there is no difference." And, witnessing further to the truth, he adds after a little, "through the forbearance of God, in order to show that He is just, and that Jesus is the justifier of him who is of faith." And that he knows that what is just is good, appears by his saying, "So that the law is holy, and the commandment holy, and just, and good," using both names to denote the same power. But "no one is good," except His Father." ( hEIS AGAQOS, hO PATHR )

    Hippolytus - haer. V.7.25 (pre-222 CE)
    'They affirm, then, concerning the substance of the seed which is a cause of all existent things, that it is none of these, but that it produces and forms all things that are made, expressing themselves thus: "I become what I wish, and I am what I am: on account of this I say, that what puts all things in motion is itself unmoved. For what exists remains forming all things, and nought of existing things is made." He says that this (one) alone is good, and that what is spoken by the Saviour is declared concerning this (one): "Why do you say that am good? One is good, my Father which is in the heavens , (hEIS ESTIN AGAQOS, hO PATHR EN TOIS OURANOIS) who causeth His sun to rise upon the just and unjust, and sendeth rain upon saints and sinners."'

    Justin Martyr - Dial. 101.2 (c. 150 CE)
    "Then what follows of the Psalm is this, in which He says: `Our fathers trusted in Thee; they trusted, and Thou didst deliver them. They cried unto Thee, and were not confounded. But I am a worm, and no man; a reproach of men, and despised of the people; 'which show that He admits them to be His fathers, who trusted in God and were saved by Him, who also were the fathers of the Virgin, by whom He was born and became man; and He foretells that He shall be saved by the same God, but boasts not in accomplishing anything through His own will or might. For when on earth He acted in the very same manner, and answered to one who addressed Him as `Good Master: '`Why callest thou me good? One is good, my Father who is in heaven.' (Luke xviii. 18 f.)"

    the Pseudo-Clementine Homiles XVI.3.4 (c. 260 CE)
    "AT break of day, when Peter went forth to discourse, Simon anticipated him, and said: "When I went away yesterday, I promised to you to return to-day, and in a discussion show that he who flamed the world is not the highest God, but that the highest God is another who alone is good, and who has remained unknown up to this time. At once, then, state to me whether you maintain that the framer of the world is the same as the lawgiver or not? If, then, he is the lawgiver, he is just; but if he is just, he is not good. But if he is not good, then it was another that Jesus proclaimed, when he said, `Do not call me good; for one is good, the Father who is in the heavens.'" (hO GAR AGAQOS hEIS ESTIN, hO PATHR hO EN TOIS OURANOIS)

    Justin, Dial. 101.2 hEIS ESTIN AGAQOS, hO PATHR MOU hO EN TOIS OURANOIS - "One is good, my Father in the heavens."

    Taitian Diatessaron (c. 172 CE) , as per Ephrem Syrus, Comm. on the Diatessaron, XV,9 (Syr & Arm] "Unus est bonus, Pater, qui in caelo."

    Irenaeus, haer. I.210.2 (pre-185 CE) "hEIS ESTIN AGAQOS, hO PATHR EN TOIS OURANOIS"

    Hippolytus, haer. V.7.25 (pre-222 CE) "hEIS ESTIN AGAQOS, hO PATHR EN TOIS OURANOIS"

    Clement of Alexandria, Strom. V.10.63 (c. 207 CE) "hEIS AGAQOS, hO PATHR"

    the Pseudo-Clementine Homilies XVI.3.4 (c. 260 CE) "hO GAR AGAQOS hEIS ESTIN, hO PATHR hO EN TOIS OURANOIS"

    Vetus Latina MS e (apud Matthew; V cent) "Unus est bonus, pater."

    Vetus Latina MS d (apud Luke; V cent) "Nemo bonus misi unus Deus pater."

Bottom Line? The ancients viewed the Good God at Mark 10:18 NOT as Christ, but his Father. 


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Wednesday, April 11, 2018

What Thinkers of the Past Have Said of the Logos at John 1:1


What Writers of the Past Have Said of the Logos at John 1:1
If, in the introduction to his Gospel, John had asserted that Jesus was truly God, he would have proposed to his readers a Messiah whose very nature and properties were totally different from those of the person whom the prophets predicted, and whose advent the Jews eagerly expected. He would also have contradicted the assertions of Moses, of John the harbinger of the Messiah, of Jesus himself, and of his apostles and disciples, that he was a man. John himself, in the same chapter in which he says, “The Word was a god,” has provided ample means of preventing any construction of his language, different from the commonly-received sense of it at that time, and in those parts of the world. When the term QEOS or KURIOS, or any of the Hebrew appellations of the Supreme Being, are applied in Scripture to a magistrate or a prophet, on what ground do we affix a meaning to them different from that which we affix to the same words when applied to the Most High? Is it not on account of the clear and distinct properties of humanity that belong to, and are inseparable from, the magistrate and the prophet? If, then, decisive characters of humanity are annexed to the LOGOS, in the introduction to John's Gospel, and in several other parts of the first chapter, as well as in many other passages of his writings, and in other books of the New Testament, these will be as proper a guide to the interpretation of QEOS in this as in any other parts of Scripture. The rule equally applies to all. . . . . . . From the whole, then, it follows, that the term 0soc, as predicated of the Aoyoc, must be understood in a sense in which it often occurs in Scripture, namely, that of a divinely-commissioned human being, who spake, in the name of God, the truths and precepts which God communicated to him, and who wrought miracles which no one could work unless he were empowered by God.—If any persons think, that the foregoing explanation of the term QEOS be not fully proved to be the true one, still the phrase which we are considering will not convey the idea that the Word was truly God. For, by all fair rules of interpretation, QEOS HN O LOGOS should be explained in a manner similar to that in which other Scripture phrases of the like kind are interpreted. Now, in all cases in which the verb EIMI is used to affirm any thing which implies a contradiction to well-known fact, to reason, to the context, or to the general tenor of Scripture, a figurative sense of it is adopted in preference to the literal meaning. If it be maintained that the apostle John's assertion, QEOS HN O LOGOS, proves the Word, or Jesus Christ, to be truly God, - the affirmation of the apostle Paul, 1 Cor. x. 4, H PETRA DE HN O CRISTOS, equally proves him to be an inanimate rock; and the assertion of Christ, AUTOS ESTIN HLIAS, proves John the Baptist to be really Elias. Paraphrase: Ver. 1. From the commencement of his public life, Jesus was a teacher of righteousness, and a publisher of glad tidings. To this preacher the Most High imparted extraordinary wisdom and power, and the privilege of speaking and acting in his name. As it was on account of similar divine communications that the Supreme Being himself called Moses a god; that Jewish writers called those men gods, to whom the word of God came; that Christ himself countenanced this meaning of the term; and that Isaiah predicted the Messiah by the names Jehovah and God; so, in the same sense, Jesus was a god. 3. All that regeneration of mankind which the gospel produced was effected by his instrumentality; and without this, not any reformation was accomplished by it. 10. He was publicly conversant with men; many were reformed by him; and he imparted the best means of renovating the human race; yet mankind in general did not believe in him. 14. This teacher was a human being, &c. — Abridged from SIMPSON: Essays on the Language of Scripture, vol. ii. pp. 17–19, 22–25, 44–46.

1. In the beginning of this new age, this grand era of the moral world (the apostle appears to me to say), he was the Word, was appointed to be the Revealer of the divine will; and the Word was with God, favoured by his heavenly Father with peculiar intercourse with him, and with express and complete communications respecting that grace and truth which came by him, and the means by which his all-important commission was to be executed; and the Word was God, or, rather, a god, since to him the word of God came, and he was the representative of the Most High. 3. All things relative to the Christian dispensation were done, or executed, through him: aided by divine power, and acting under divine authority, he accomplished the gracious purposes for which he came; and without him was not any thing done that was done: he gave the apostles their commission, and illuminated their minds; he communicated to them the miraculous powers by which they were to diffuse and establish the gospel; he continually directed them in their great work; and it was through his agency that the world was anew created, and Gentiles as well as Jews placed in a state of spiritual privilege, and made heirs of eternal salvation. 10. He was in the world; he dwelt among men, while engaged in executing his important commission; and the world was made, or formed anew, through him: introduced by him into a new state, a state of blessed and sanctifying privilege; and yet the world knew him not, he was despised and rejected of men. 14. And the Word, this illustrious Revealer of the divine Will, though highly exalted by the Father's love and favour, and appointed to high dignity and power, became, or was, flesh: he was “a man of sorrows, and acquainted with grief.” We might have expected, that he would be raised above the common lot of humanity; but he was subject to infirmity, distress, and mortality, and exposed to want and suffering; and at last experienced the shame and agony of the cross, – CARPENTER: Unitarianism the Doctrine of the Gospel, pp. 61—60.

The Greek word LOGOS is susceptible of several interpretations, the chief of which are these two, -“reason” and “speech;” ratio and oratio. Were I to desert the beaten track (which I do not think there is here sufficient evidence to warrant), I should prefer the word reason, as suggesting the inward principle or faculty, and not the external enunciation, which may be called word or speech. The passage of Holy Writ referred to is Prov. viii. throughout. What is here termed O LOGOS is there H SOFIA. There is such a coincidence in the things attributed to each, as evidently shows, that both were intended to indicate the same divine personage. The passage in the Proverbs, I own, admits a more familiar explanation, as regarding the happy consequences of that mental quality which we may call true or heavenly wisdom....... 3. “All things were made by it; and without it.”—4. “In it was life.” It is much more suitable to the figurative style here employed, to speak of the word, though denoting a person, as a thing, agreeably to the grammatical idiom, till a direct intimation is made of its personality. This intimation I consider as made, ver. 4, “In it was life.” The way of rendering here adopted, is, as far as I have had occasion to observe, agreeable to the practice of all translators, except the English. But it deserves to be remarked, that every version which preceded the common translation, as far as I have been able to discover, uniformly employed the neuter pronoun it. So it is in that called the Bishop's Bible, and in the Geneva English. Beside, that this method is more agreeable to grammatical propriety, it evidently preserves the allusion better which there is in this passage to the account of the creation given by Moses, &c. — Abridged from Dr. CAMPBELL on the Gospels

The Greek word, which our translation hath rendered by that of word, signifies also reason, intelligence, wisdom. This sense is much better than the other: it is more accommodated to the divine nature, which is purely spiritual, and to which word is not congruous. If God is often represented as speaking, it is nothing else but his wisdom which conceives any design; and the sacred writers borrow this metaphor from men, who manifest their intentions by speech. This being laid down, the design of St. John, in my opinion, is to inform us, that the same wisdom, which formed the creatures with so much skill, hath not shone with less splendour in the creation of the new world....... I shall annex a short paraphrase, that the ideas of St. John may at once be clearly seen: — 1. There is an eternal Reason, a sovereign Wisdom, which hath existed from all ages: this Wisdom hath ever been inseparable from God; or, to speak properly, it is God himself. 2. In the beginning of the world, it was then with God, who never does any thing without consulting it. 3. And he employed it in the creation of the universe. In effect, there is no creature, in which one doth not see some trace of this Wisdom shine; so that, without it, things would never have attained that point of beauty which we admire. 4. Wisdom is the source of life and of true happiness; and not merely this, - it serves, moreover, as a light to conduct us to them. 5. This life especially hath shone forth in our days; but, how capable soever it were of dispelling the shades of ignorance, blind mortals chose rather to wander in error, than follow the counsels of pure and unclouded reason. 14. And if the Divine Wisdom hath appeared in the works of the creation, one may say that it hath no less displayed its splendour under the gospel. It hath rendered itself sensible and palpable in Jesus Christ: by his means it hath never ceased to do good to men. We have been witnesses of the miracles which were effected by this Wisdom, and of the glory with which Jesus Christ was invested; — a glory much greater than what appeared in Moses and the prophets, such as was proper to be the glory of the only-begotten Son of God. — ABAUZIT: Miscellanies, pp. 143, 144, 148, 149.

If we suppose the Word to have been God, personally, in any sense, the most irreconcilable inconsistencies will follow. .... The very idea of God's becoming a man, is totally shocking. Scarcely less so is it, that the Creator of the world should be united, in one person, with a human body and a human soul, and in that condition receive glory from a higher being still. Such difficulties are, to my mind, I confess, totally insuperable. They seem utterly irreconcilable with any clear conception of the nature of either God or man. I can conceive of divine attributes being with God, and constituting God, and being displayed in creation and revelation, and being especially manifested in Jesus Christ, so as to clothe him with glory, and make him to appear to be the peculiar favourite of heaven; but I cannot conceive of a Divine Person to do all this. .... I take the whole passage to mean this: — The word which God spake by Christ, the revelation which he made of himself, through him, is nothing new, but is a part of a series of revelations running back to the very beginning of all things. The same Almighty Power and Perfect Wisdom, which were displayed in the miracles and doctrines of Christ, were first manifested in the works of the physical creation: “By the word of the Lord were the heavens made, and all the host of them by the breath of his mouth.” The next manifestation was in the creation of the soul of man, to which he imparted, in a fainter degree than that in which they exist in himself, some of his own attributes: “The inspiration of the Almighty hath given him understanding.” “In him, or rather it, was life; and that life was the light of men. But the light shone in darkness, and the darkness comprehended it not.” The revelation which God made of himself in the material world, and in the soul of man, was not understood, and the world fell into idolatry. The next revelation that God made of himself was to the Jewish nation, by which he took a particular people, and made them his own, brought them into an especial relation to himself. After a long interval, he visited his own people by another revelation; but they did not recognise him in it. He sent John the Baptist, to announce the coming of his last and greatest revelation to man; and at length, in Christ himself, that Light, which had ever been shining, burst out with greater brilliancy; that Life, which had ever been the source of intellectual energy to men, received a more perfect development; that Word, which had been sounding in the ears of mortals since the beginning of time, from the works of God, from the heavens above and from the earth beneath, received a more full and articulate annunciation. — BURNAP: Expository Lectures on the Doctrine of the Trinity, pp. 54, 55; 61, 62.

It was the apostle's purpose, in the introduction of his Gospel, to declare that Christianity had the same divine origin as the universe itself; that it was to be considered as proceeding from the same power of God. Writing in Asia Minor for readers, by many of whom the term Logos was more familiarly used than any other, to express the attributes of God viewed in relation to his creatures, he adopted this term to convey his meaning, because, from their associations with it, it was fitted particularly to impress and affect their minds; thus connecting the great truth which he taught with their former modes of thinking and speaking. But upon the idea primarily expressed by this term, a new conception — the conception of the proper personality of those attributes — had been superinduced. This doctrine, then, – the doctrine of an hypostatised Logos, it appears to have been his purpose to set aside. He would guard himself, I think, against being understood to countenance it. The Logos, he teaches, was not the agent of God, but God himself. Using the term merely to denote the attributes of God as manifested in his works, he teaches that the operations of the Logos are the operations of God; that all conceived of under that name is to be referred immediately to God; that in speaking of the Logos we speak of God; that “the Logos is God.” .... Adopting this term [Power of God], we may say that the Power of God, personified, is the subject of the introductory verses of his Gospel. It is first said to be God, and afterwards declared to have become a man. It is first regarded in its relation to God in whom it resides, and afterwards in its relation to Jesus through whom it was manifested. Viewed in the former relation, what may be said of the Power of God is true of God: the terms become identical in their purport. Viewed in the latter relation, whatever is true of the Power of God is true of Christ, considered as the minister of God. His words were the words of God; his miracles were performed by the power of God. .... The word SARX, in its primitive meaning flesh, is often used to denote man. When it is said, that the Logos, or the Power of God, became a man, the meaning is, that the Power of God was manifested in and exercised through a man. It is afterward, by a figurative use of language, identified with Christ, in whom it is conceived of as residing.—NORTON: Statement of Reasons, pp. 241–245.

St. John ... carefully warns us against thinking of his personification as otherwise than identical with the Supreme, by saying outright that the Logos is God; and therefore that whatever he may say about the former, is really to be understood as spoken of the latter. The whole proem divides itself into two ideas: that from the Genius or Logos of God have proceeded two sets of divine works;– the material world; and the soul and inspiration of heaven shed upon the world through Christ. His object, I believe, is to link together these two effects as successive and analogous results—physical in one case, spiritual in the other— of the same divine and holy energy. Having warned us, ... that this energy is not really a person distinct from the Supreme, he abandons himself without reserve to the beautiful personification which follows; assuring us that thereby were all things made at first, and thereby were all men being enlightened now; that our very world, which felt that forming hand of old, had not discerned the blessed influence which again descended to regenerate it: ungrateful treatment! as of one who came unto his own, and his own received him not. Yet were there some of more perceptive conscience and better hearts; and they, be they Jew or Gentile, whose spirits sprung to the divine embrace, were permitted to become, by reflected similitude, the sons of God. — Thus far, that is, to the end of the thirteenth verse, there is no mention of Jesus Christ as an individual: there is only the unembodied personification of the abstract energy of God in the original design, and the newer regeneration of the world. ... In the next verse, however, the heavenly personification is dropped upon the man Jesus; the mystic divine light is permitted to sink into the deeps of his humanity; it vanishes from separate sight; and there comes before us, and henceforth lives within our view throughout the Gospel, the Man of sorrows, the Child of God, with the tears and infirmities of our mortal nature, and the moral perfection of the Divine. “And the Word was made flesh,” &c. — MARTINEAU: Lecture on the Proposition “that Christ is God; being the fifth of a series; pp. 34, 35.


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The Silliness of the Hypostatic Union, By William Ellery Channing


The Hypostatic Union - an Enormous Tax on Human Credulity By William Ellery Channing

[Hypostatic union is a technical term in Christian theology employed in mainstream Christology to describe the union of Christ's humanity and divinity in one hypostasis, or individual existence.]~Wikipedia

See also Difficulties with the Trinity Doctrine by Alvin Lamson 1828

We complain of the doctrine of the Trinity, that, not satisfied with making God three beings, it makes Jesus Christ two beings, and thus introduces infinite confusion into our conceptions of his character. This corruption of Christianity, alike repugnant to common sense and to the general strain of Scripture, is a remarkable proof of the power of a false philosophy in disfiguring the simple truth of Jesus.

According to this doctrine, Jesus Christ, instead of being one mind, one conscious intelligent principle, whom we can understand, consists of two souls, two minds; the one divine, the other human; the one weak, the other almighty; the one ignorant, the other omniscient. Now we maintain that this is to make Christ two beings. To denominate him one person, one being, and yet to suppose him made up of two minds infinitely different from each other, is to abuse and confound language, and to throw darkness over all our conceptions of intelligent natures. According to the common doctrine, each of these two minds in Christ has its own consciousness, its own will, its own perceptions. They have, in fact, no common properties. The divine mind feels none of the wants and sorrows of the human, and the human is infinitely removed from the perfection and happiness of the divine. Can you conceive of two beings in the universe more distinct? We have always thought that one person was constituted and distinguished by one consciousness. The doctrine that one and the same person should have two consciousnesses, two wills, two souls, infinitely different from each other, this we think an enormous tax on human credulity.

We say that if a doctrine, so strange, so difficult, so remote from all the previous conceptions of men, be indeed a part, and an essential part, of revelation, it must be taught with great distinctness, and we ask our brethren to point to some plain, direct passage, where Christ is said to be composed of two minds infinitely different, yet constituting one person. We find none. Other Christians, indeed, tell us that this doctrine is necessary to the harmony of the Scriptures, that some texts ascribe to Jesus Christ human, and others divine properties, and that to reconcile these we must suppose two minds, to which these properties may be referred. In other words, for the purpose of reconciling certain difficult passages, which a just criticism can in a great degree, if not wholly, explain, we must invent an hypothesis vastly more difficult, and involving gross absurdity. We are to find our way out of a labyrinth by a clue which conducts us into mazes infinitely more inextricable.

Surely, if Jesus Christ felt that he consisted of two minds, and that this was a leading feature of his religion, his phraseology respecting himself would have been coloured by this peculiarity. The universal language of men is framed upon the idea that one person is one person, is one mind, and one soul; and when the multitude heard this language from the lips of Jesus, they must have taken it in its usual sense, and must have referred to a single soul all which he spoke, unless expressly instructed to interpret it differently. But where do we find this instruction? Where do you meet, in the New Testament, the phraseology which abounds in Trinitarian books, and which necessarily grows from the doctrine of two natures in Jesus? Where does this divine teacher say, "This I speak as God, and this as man; this is true only of my human mind, this only of my divine?"' Where do we find in the Epistles a trace of this strange phraseology? Nowhere. It was not needed in that day. It was demanded by the errors of a later age.

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